tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2860023273901948907.post5691801768624221230..comments2024-03-08T18:04:37.943-08:00Comments on Paul and co-workers: Douglas Campbell on Gal 5:11Richard Fellowshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/06777460488456330838noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2860023273901948907.post-3428226943293739762011-06-22T20:24:01.603-07:002011-06-22T20:24:01.603-07:00Hi Xabier. Yes, 1 Cor 9:20-21 explains why Paul ci...Hi Xabier. Yes, 1 Cor 9:20-21 explains why Paul circumcised Timothy. This explanation was proposed by Tertullian, I think, and is still very popular. Paul circumcised Timothy so that Timothy could be a "Jew to the Jews" and thereby gain an audience among Jews. Timothy himself was not a Jew.<br /><br />In Gal 5:11 Paul refers to a time when he had preached circumcision to Gentiles (or at least to a Gentile). It cannot refer here to the preaching of circumcision to Jews (see Campbell's paper).Richard Fellowshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/06777460488456330838noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2860023273901948907.post-78591623544567138902011-06-22T03:55:45.422-07:002011-06-22T03:55:45.422-07:00Hi Richard:
"To the Jews I became like a Jew...Hi Richard:<br /><br />"To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law. To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law), so as to win those not having the law." (1 Corinthians 9:20-21)<br /><br />Perhaps this is a clue. Paul preaches circumcision (or not object it) to the jews but not to the gentiles.<br /><br />Cordially,<br /><br />XabierAnonymousnoreply@blogger.com